Pts Question
5 1. Define or provide
the formula for the following items:
a. glycine
b. pilus
c. peritrichous
d. anaerobic
e. plasmid
5 2. Provide a schematic representation of a Gram-negative bacterial cell wall.
10 3. Design an anabolic or catabolic operon.
10 4. Using transduction OR
transformation OR conjugation describe how
Staphylococcus aureus is able to acquire a resistance to an antibiotic.
10 5. Choose and diagram ONE
of the following:
a. DNA synthesis, OR
b. Protein synthesis, OR
c. Glycolysis.
20 6. Choose and answer TWO
of the following:
a. Discuss or describe the differences among sanitation, disinfection,
and
sterilization,
OR
b. Describe the significance of plasmids in bacteria,
OR
c. How do bacteria prevent destruction of their own DNA?,
OR
d. List the processes necessary for cells to function, OR
e. Describe how genetic information is stored in prokaryotic cells.
40 7. Complete/answer each
of the 20 statements/questions below using these test
sheets.
Organisms that absorb crystal violet and are not easily decolorized
by alcohol are referred
to as:
a. Gram negative
b. acid fast
c. Gram positive
d. pathogenic
Typical prokaryotic cells have their genetic material in the form of:
a. a single DNA strand
b. pairs (23) of chromosomes
c. several DNA fragments called the genome
d. a single circular double-stranded molecule of DNA
Which of the following environmental factors will not stimulate endospore
formation?
a. mesophilic temperatures
b. freezing
c. aridity
d. boiling
In a rapidly multiplying bacterial population, cell numbers increase:
a. indirectly
b. arithmetically
c. logarithmically
d. longitudinally
All coenzymes are derivatives of:
a. minerals
b. hormones
c. vitamins
d. metabolites
The compound from which hydrogen atoms are removed becomes __________
and the NAD becomes ___________ when it accepts hydrogen atoms.
a. reduced, oxidized
b. converted, reconverted
c. utilized, oxidized
d. oxidized, reduced
Which of the following processes generates the greatest amount of energy?
a. fermentation
b. glycolysis
c. aerobic respiration
d. anaerobic respiration
In the TCA cycle, an important reaction is one in which the cell incorporates
ammonia
into an organic molecule. One such example happens when a-ketoglutarate
reacts
with NH4 to form:
a. protein
b. valine
c. glutamic acid
d. glucose
The synthesis of new strands of DNA begins at a specific site referred
to as the:
a. origin of replication
b. replication fork
c. active site
d. central dogma
There are several mRNA sequences that do not code for any of the twenty
amino acids.
These are called:
a. anti-codons
b. non-template codons
c. nonsense codons
d. introns
The specific sequence of nucleotides in the DNA to which RNA polymerase
attaches
is termed the:
a. promoter region
b. regulatory region
c. sigma region
d. core region
The placement of the amino acid transferred from tRNA to mRNA is determined
by the:
a. complementarity of nucleotides on the
two molecules
b. need of the protein in the organism
c. DNA which transcribes both molecules
d. sequence of nucleotides on the rRNA
E. coli breaks down glucose with enzymes that are not subject to
regulation by induction
or repression. Such enzymes are termed:
a. constitutive
b. template
c. sigma
d. holoenzymes
Segments of DNA, found in virtually all species of bacteria, that can move
from one site to
another are called:
a. insertion sequences
b. palindromic sequences
c. transposons
d. muons
A term coined to describe a bacterium which requires a growth factor in
order to grow is:
a. auxotroph
b. palindrome
c. heterotroph
d. apoptosis
When the F plasmid replicates as part of the chromosome, the progeny cells
are:
a. Hfr cells
b. F-cells
c. F plasmid cells
d. heterogeneous nuclear RNA cells
The DNA enzyme which reacts with specific short sequences of nucleotides
in foreign
DNA and breaks the phosphate backbone at these sites is called:
a. ribonuclease
b. transferase
c. restriction endonuclease
d. DNase
The process of removing or killing all microorganisms in or on a material
is termed:
a. sterilization
b. disinfection
c. sanitation
d. obfuscation
The most resistant of the vegetative organisms to the action of germicides
is:
a. Streptococcus pneumonia
b. Salmonella typhi
c. Bacillus cerus
d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
An important component of the endospore which aids in its resistance to
destruction is:
a. dipicolinic acid
b. chromatin
c. microtubules
d. histone
Pts. Question
5 1. Define each
of the following terms:
a. tropism
b. viroid
c. secondary response
d. attenuation
e. iatrogenic disease
5 2. Provide the
names of three bacteria that exemplify the diversity of the
microbial world.
10 3. Choose and answer ONE
of the following:
a. Describe the three phases of the common viral reproductive
cycle, OR
b. Describe the initiation of viral infection, OR
c. Differentiate the five types of viral infection.
10 4. Compare and contrast
the viral multiplication schemes of RNA and
DNA viruses.
10 5. Choose and answer ONE
of the following:
a. Describe antigen processing, OR
b. Describe the cellular process of inflammation.
10 6. Choose and answer ONE
of the following:
a. Describe the five classes of immunoglobulin, OR
b. Diagram an IgG antibody in detail.
10 7. Choose and answer ONE
of the following:
a. Explain how clonal expansion affects memory cell development,
OR
b. Design an epidemiologic study to demonstrate herd immunity.
10 8. Differentiate therapeutic
dose and therapeutic index.
10 9. Choose and answer ONE
of the following:
a. What are the steps that can be taken to limit the development of
resistance? OR
b. Why are narrow spectrum antibiotics chosen before broad
spectrum antibiotics? Give an example of each and its
range.
20 10. Answer each of the
following one point questions:
Which of the following lists the essential
viral components?
a. genome, capsid
b. nucleic acid, capsid, envelope
c. genome, virion, envelope
d. capsid, nucleic acid, capsule
The protein projections on the surface of viruses which function in attachment
to the host
cell are called-
a. suckers
b. pili
c. hooks
d. spikes
The infectious agent that is devoid of nucleic acid but not protein is
a. prion
b. viroid
c. virus
d. capsid
A key feature of all viral infections is the
a. union of the nucleic acid with the
host cell membrane
b. separation of the host nucleic acid
from its cytoplasm
c. removal of the host receptor site from
the viral program
d. separation of nucleic acid from protein
coat
An exit method used by viruses which does not destroy tyhe host cell is
a. lysis
b. inversion
c. budding
d. excising
Proteins produced by the body in response to invasion by a foreign substance
which
interacts specifically with that substance-
a. antibodies
b. antibiotics
c. peroxides
d. toxins
Which of the following is not involved in the immune response?
a. neutrophils
b. macrophages
c. erythrocytes
d. lymphocytes
The cells primarily responsible for defense
of the body against microorganisms are the
a. leukocytes
b. erythrocytes
c. platelets
d. osteocytes
A group of interacting serum proteins which provide a non-specific defense
mecahnism is
a. complement
b. interferon
c. glycoproteins
d. chemotoxic agents
The attraction of leukocytes to the area of inflammation is referred to
as
a. parasitism
b. infection
c. chemotaxis
d. premeditation
A term synonymous with antibody is
a. antigen
b. immunoglobulin
c. protein
d. enzyme
The Y-shape of the IgG molecule is
held together by
a. disulfide bonds
b. hydrogen bonds
c. nitrogen bonds
d. complement
Which of the following antibodies is
found primarily in external secretions like milk and
saliva?
a. IgD
b. IgG
c. IgA
d. IgM
e. IgE
Another term by which helper T cells
are known is
a. CD1+
b. CD2+
c. CD3+
d. CD4+
During clonal expansion, memory cells
are produced by
a. both T and B
cells
b. neither T nor
B cells
c. B cells only
d. T cells only
The microorganisms that are found on
the body but do not produce obvious harmful effects
are known as
a. normal fauna
b. normal flora
c. transient flora
d. feral flora
Which of the following can suppress
the growth of normal flora which then allows
pathogens to colonize
the host?
a. peroxides
b. antibiotics
c. toxins
d. fatty acids
Establishment of microbial growth on
or in the host is referred to as
a. colonization
b. commensalism
c. pathogenic
d. parasitism
A disease which rapidly spreads to
include most of the world population is called a(n)
a. epidemic
b. pandemic
c. endemic
d. zoonosis
The possible sources of an infectious
disease agent is referred to as its
a. vector
b. transmission
pool
c. fomite
d. reservoir
Pts. Question
5 1.
Choose and answer ONE of the following:
a. What causes folliculitis, furuncles, and carbuncles, and how are they
treated?
OR
b. How are pyoderma and impetigo spread?
OR
c. How are microorganisms involved in acne?
OR
d. What organisms are frequently found in burn infections?
10
2. Match the following:
German measles
a. varicella
measles
b. vaccinia virus
chickenpox
c. rubeola
Koplik’s spots
d. papillomavirus
warts
e. zoster
shingles
f. rubella
cowpox
SSPE
10
3. Choose and answer ONE of the following:
a. How is strep throat diagnosed and treated? OR
b. How is diptheria diagnosed, treated, and prevented?
OR
c. What agents cause colds and how are they transmitted?
10
4. Choose and answer ONE of the following:
a. What causes tuberculosis and why is it a global problem?
OR
b. How is tuberculosis transmitted and what populations are most susceptible?
10
5. List the special characteristics of the Epstein-Barr virus. What diseases
does it cause and
how are they diagnosed and treated?
10
6. Choose and answer ONE of the following:
a. List the characteristics of rabies. What treatment is available?
OR
b. Why is rabies difficult to control and what measures are available?
10
7. Choose and answer ONE of the following:
a. Contrast the tuberculoid and lepromatous forms of Hansen’s disease,
OR
b. What is the cause of tetanus and how do humans acquire it?
10
8. Design and justify a sexually transmitted diseases control program for
Lewiston, ME.
10
9. Match the following:
___ chancroid
a. herpes
___ gonorrhea
b. papilloma virus
___ syphilis
c. Esherichia coli
___ Donovan bodies
d. Haemophilus
___ yaws
e. Neisseria
___ toxic shock syndrome
f. Gardnerella
___ buboes
g. Treponema
___ chancre
h. Staphylococcus
___ clue cells
i. Chlamydia
___ bejel
j. Calymmatobacterium
___ genital warts
___ whitlow
___ cause of most UTIs